Posted: Fri Jun 09, 2006 5:23 am
No one has yet commented on the choice of the word "condone" in connection with adultry. First of all, I don't believe Islamic values "condone" adultry. But the problem is not the result of simply omitting the word "not" because while I believe Islam does "not condone" adultry, I don't think European values do either. I am not sure, but is not adultry grounds for divorce in Europe? Or, if currently Europe allows for "no fault" divorce without requiring a specific complaint, is it not the case that the adultry may motivate the other party to the marrage to seek a divorce?
Perhaps the author is confused as to the distinction between "condone" and "condemn"?
And on the putative distinction between Dutch and Flemish (or the lack thereof), please remember that they both have navies and therefore are different languages!
Perhaps the author is confused as to the distinction between "condone" and "condemn"?
And on the putative distinction between Dutch and Flemish (or the lack thereof), please remember that they both have navies and therefore are different languages!