"much fun" vs. "a lot of fun"
Posted: Sun Jun 07, 2009 7:04 pm
A Russian pen pal wrote to me, stating in the course of the narrative:
"I have much fun learning....".
I was trying to explain in Russian why, in this particular context, we say "I have a lot of fun learning" or "I have quite a bit of fun learning", but "I have much fun" is alien. To be honest, I not only could not tell the person why, but I am not even sure if "I have much fun" would "flunk" a syntax test. It probably flunks a usage test.
To compound matters, I then have to explain, why, in a passive construct, we can possibly say, "There was much fun to be had".
Never mind the translation to Russian of an explanation; I can do that. I just would like to understand the underpinings of why one format works and the other doesn't.
It seems to be anchored to the word "fun"...we cannot say "many fun", yet "much fun" can occur. Or maybe the anchor is "much" and what it governs. I am not even sure which is the driving force.......help! (Thanks in advance)
"I have much fun learning....".
I was trying to explain in Russian why, in this particular context, we say "I have a lot of fun learning" or "I have quite a bit of fun learning", but "I have much fun" is alien. To be honest, I not only could not tell the person why, but I am not even sure if "I have much fun" would "flunk" a syntax test. It probably flunks a usage test.
To compound matters, I then have to explain, why, in a passive construct, we can possibly say, "There was much fun to be had".
Never mind the translation to Russian of an explanation; I can do that. I just would like to understand the underpinings of why one format works and the other doesn't.
It seems to be anchored to the word "fun"...we cannot say "many fun", yet "much fun" can occur. Or maybe the anchor is "much" and what it governs. I am not even sure which is the driving force.......help! (Thanks in advance)